In the Book of Revelations, God says jews lie and that they’re Satanists. There’s no qualifier there, it just is. If He felt it important enough to warn us of their behaviors, you should heed His warning.
Nope, he says the ones who lie are not Jews. He's not speaking of the ethnic Jews (identified by Ignatius as I just linked you) who let the Gentiles call themselves Jews even when they weren't circumcised.
We can infer from Jesus's words that he identifies seven enemy works: the apostolate of satan (2:2), the synagoguing of satan (2:9, 3:9), the throne of satan (2:13), the dwelling of satan (2:13), the depths of satan (2:24), the livings of satan (3:1), and the riches of satan (3:17). Don't limit your view of the enemy when Jesus says otherwise!
God means the actual jews from the OT are no more. They’ve been replaced by imposters who say they are jews but are not. These replacements are the Synagogue of Satan, like Netanyahu.
Ignatius
As I said earlier, you’re using non-Scripture to
come to Scripture-based conclusions. Be careful.
That's a whole lot to infer from an offhand verse in 96 AD. There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today and there is no time at which the whole people have been replaced, that's just history. There is no church teaching that the Judahites are no more, or that the word Jew (French "Ju" ca. 900s) is any different from an elision of the word Judahite (Latin "Judaeus" at the same time). And Ignatius in 108 AD says the Gentiles who spoke so highly of Judaism were surprised that his Spirit-inspired teaching was so direct in countering them, which suggests they really did bow at his feet in Philadelphia, just as Jesus said. So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900. Be careful.
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which is God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightful Semite owners of the land. Does that line up with my interpretation or yours? Do you support their behavior or do you condemn it?
In the Book of Revelations, God says jews lie and that they’re Satanists. There’s no qualifier there, it just is. If He felt it important enough to warn us of their behaviors, you should heed His warning.
I would be enlightened if you could share the passage from the book of Revelation that says that. I don't remember reading it
Revelations 2:9 and 3:9 from a non-Scofield Bible (I recommend King James Version).
I'll check it out when I get home
Also check out my friend Ignatius of Antioch who witnessed the (first) prophesied defeat of the synagogue of satan firsthand.
Nope, he says the ones who lie are not Jews. He's not speaking of the ethnic Jews (identified by Ignatius as I just linked you) who let the Gentiles call themselves Jews even when they weren't circumcised.
We can infer from Jesus's words that he identifies seven enemy works: the apostolate of satan (2:2), the synagoguing of satan (2:9, 3:9), the throne of satan (2:13), the dwelling of satan (2:13), the depths of satan (2:24), the livings of satan (3:1), and the riches of satan (3:17). Don't limit your view of the enemy when Jesus says otherwise!
God means the actual jews from the OT are no more. They’ve been replaced by imposters who say they are jews but are not. These replacements are the Synagogue of Satan, like Netanyahu.
As I said earlier, you’re using non-Scripture to come to Scripture-based conclusions. Be careful.
That's a whole lot to infer from an offhand verse in 96 AD. There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today and there is no time at which the whole people have been replaced, that's just history. There is no church teaching that the Judahites are no more, or that the word Jew (French "Ju" ca. 900s) is any different from an elision of the word Judahite (Latin "Judaeus" at the same time). And Ignatius in 108 AD says the Gentiles who spoke so highly of Judaism were surprised that his Spirit-inspired teaching was so direct in countering them, which suggests they really did bow at his feet in Philadelphia, just as Jesus said. So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900. Be careful.
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which is God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightful Semite owners of the land. Does that line up with my interpretation or yours? Do you support their behavior or do you condemn it?