Let's agree for now to call the evildoers prior to the birth of Judah the "synagogue of satan" and, presumably, the "satanists". (Of course that would work for me because the synagogue of satan is defined as not Jews.) Let's dismiss your aside suggesting that LaVey gets to define "satanists" for us seeing as many others self-identify as such without connecting to him.

Your assertion is essentially that exterminating Jews makes problems go away and exterminating Gentile satanists doesn't. But this is belied by the idea that a synagogue of satan before there were any Jews was the source of the problems. So your implication that the problem is totally limited to the Jewish race today is logically unlikely because the problem existed when there was no Jewish race to exterminate.

You imply there is a synagogue of satan (or other nameable group of satanists) prior to Judah. Why don't you just use a word that people understand for all evildoers over time instead of implying that only after the emergence of a Jewish race can it be possible for extermination of one race to solve all problems? You're so close to describing the problem accurately!