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8
Took a turn for the better (media.scored.co)
posted 8 days ago by JosephGoebbel5 8 days ago by JosephGoebbel5 +9 / -1
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– SwampRangers -1 points 7 days ago +1 / -2

Yes, in case you didn't see me saying it the last 20 times, Jesus Christ is my Lord, Savior, and King. He also prophesied twice that the Jews would welcome him in the Father's Name (Luke 13:35, Matt. 23:39). Paul expands on this prophecy (Rom. 11). So, for the sake of Jesus Christ, my Lord, Savior, and King, I preach the good news of the death of Christ for my sin and the resurrection of Christ for my glorification to everyone, Jew first and Gentile also. On occasion that includes straightening out the Gentiles about who the Jews are.

I've also denounced the Talmud here repeatedly for its superstitious spiritism, its casuistic unawareness, and its stifling isolationism. However, I cannot denounce the Talmud on things it doesn't say, and there's a lot of other denunciation floating around for that reason. For instance, I've denounced Rabbi Ulla for saying the Jesus who was hung on a tree at Passover was an inciter; but I cannot denounce the Talmud for accurately reporting that Ulla said that as an outlier view and the majority ruled differently.

Did you recant your statement that "King of the jews" (your lowercase) was not an actual title, or do you "pathetic"ally "rewrite" Matt. 2:2?

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– gaw-mods-are-gay 1 point 6 days ago +1 / -0

Did you recant your statement that "King of the jews" (your lowercase) was not an actual title, or do you "pathetic"ally "rewrite" Matt. 2:2?

lmao Nope.

Judean ≠ Jew biblically unless you think people from Judea that rejected judaism and turned to Christ are still jews? That would be stupid but you never know.

Maybe pick up a concordance, brother. Have a blessed day.

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– SwampRangers 2 points 6 days ago +2 / -0

Sounds like you're pathetically rewriting what 17 translations call "King of the Jews" as if that's the correct English translation for it.

Yes, Paul was in Judea and turned to Christ and rejected Judaism/Ioudaismos (Gal. 1:13-14) and yet was still a Jew/Ioudaios (Acts 21:39, 22:3). So were a million others in the first century. So are a million others today (according to a survey by Lifeway). Paul knew the difference between Judaic ancestry and Judaic religion (ism). There is a difference between Jewishness and Judaism (religious), but there is not a difference between Jewishness and Judeanness (national).

The burden of proof is on you that "Jew" means something other than Ioudaios or Judaeus or Ju, its earlier forms in a direct etymological chain. You seem to assume a break in the chain that you don't instantiate.

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– gaw-mods-are-gay 0 points 6 days ago +1 / -1

but there is not a difference between Jewishness and Judeanness

Yes there is. One is a Judean, the other is jewish, rabbi. This isn't difficult to grasp.

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– SwampRangers 1 point 6 days ago +1 / -0

In the first century, the word Ioudaios described both Jewish and Judean because all Jewish people were of the Judean nation and all Judean citizens were Jewish. Nowadays we don't use the word Judean anymore because of the political changes, but there's no evidence that Jewish people aren't descended from a chain of Judeans by births and naturalizations. You're the one proposing a distinction without specifying a difference.

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