Jesus says that he speaks in parables in order to deceive people and prevent them from understanding and salvation
Funny you don't quote him. "Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand" (Matt. 13:13). Nothing about deception or prevention, but about inability. Now, he does quote Is. 6:9-10, where Isaiah is told to tell the people, with a taunting imperative and a "lest", "Perceive not ... lest they see", etc. However, in Hebrew idiom this is of course not a command but a contingency: either you go on not perceiving or you will see and be saved; and this is the way Jesus uses it.
Luk 8:10 he said, “To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that ‘seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.’
The full quote didn't change anything. Delivering comms with different levels of comprehension to different audiences is standard practice for leaders. If your inner circle knows you use a codeword a certain way, and if your larger audience doesn't know that, you're giving perfectly good comms at two different levels (newcomer and initiate). There is no deception here unless the codeword is designed to contradict the ordinary use of the word.
Incidentally, all parents do this with children. If you're telling a story to a mixed audience and say someone was intimate with his wife, the children are receiving one valid level of information and the adults are receiving a deeper but also completely valid level of information. There is no deception in that at all (like there is with most Santa and Tooth Fairy narratives).
You're the one charging deception, but it's not in the text.
He speaks to us in parables to explain big things to our tiny brains. If you misunderstand any of the Lord's humour, I suggest you ask Him about it, He still explains..
Exactly!
Funny you don't quote him. "Therefore speak I to them in parables: because they seeing see not; and hearing they hear not, neither do they understand" (Matt. 13:13). Nothing about deception or prevention, but about inability. Now, he does quote Is. 6:9-10, where Isaiah is told to tell the people, with a taunting imperative and a "lest", "Perceive not ... lest they see", etc. However, in Hebrew idiom this is of course not a command but a contingency: either you go on not perceiving or you will see and be saved; and this is the way Jesus uses it.
You selectively quote.
The full bhoona is this:
Luk 8:10 he said, “To you it has been given to know the secrets of the kingdom of God, but for others they are in parables, so that ‘seeing they may not see, and hearing they may not understand.’
Deception.
The full quote didn't change anything. Delivering comms with different levels of comprehension to different audiences is standard practice for leaders. If your inner circle knows you use a codeword a certain way, and if your larger audience doesn't know that, you're giving perfectly good comms at two different levels (newcomer and initiate). There is no deception here unless the codeword is designed to contradict the ordinary use of the word.
Incidentally, all parents do this with children. If you're telling a story to a mixed audience and say someone was intimate with his wife, the children are receiving one valid level of information and the adults are receiving a deeper but also completely valid level of information. There is no deception in that at all (like there is with most Santa and Tooth Fairy narratives).
You're the one charging deception, but it's not in the text.
Yes it is. He says he speaks to them in parables so that they will not be able to understand.
He speaks to us in parables to explain big things to our tiny brains. If you misunderstand any of the Lord's humour, I suggest you ask Him about it, He still explains..