Joseph was still the dad though, right?
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Official explanation: The Spirit of God overshadowed Mary so that what was born of her was the Son of God.
My details: Since the Angel of God was capable of manifesting as many things and was the preexistent form of Jesus, the Angel simply manifested as the seed (of the woman) and then took on her flesh, i.e., emptied and disseminated itself throughout one spotless cell of her flesh. Upon one cell recognizing another the chemical propagation of the seed's nature is instant throughout the zygotic boundary. From then on the divine nature no longer manifested as a divine-angelic nature but only as a divine-human nature.
(This happened on 25 Dec, 5 BC. Jesus was born on 6 Oct, 4 BC. At 3 a.m. no less.)
Joseph as adoptive father conferred full Jewish and Davidic rights upon his son because adoption was as strong a tie as natural generation. Jesus's adoption was never in question, only his legitimacy.