since it's in the news again...
(media.conspiracies.win)
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No
U.S. Code Title 28 PART VI CHAPTER 176 SUBCHAPTER A § 3002 (15) is the part of the law where the "United States" is defined as any authorized agent acting on behalf of the country in their official capacity for the purposes of a legal action. For example the DOJ prosecuting Snowden would be listed as "United States v Snowden"
It does NOT make the country into a corporation.
No, it literally says (1) A Federal corporation.
It does indeed define the United States as that.
No, it say that a federal corporation or department or commission or board or instrumentality of the United States can be listed as "United States" in a legal document, such as the example I gave with the DOJ. It does not turn the country into a corporation or department or commission or board or instrumentality.
The U.S. does everything a corporation does, does it not? The only difference is that it is "too big to fail", even though it's completely financially insolvent.
Why do you want this to be true so much that you're trying to make any argument, no matter how stupid, of possible ways it could be construed as true even though it clearly isnt?
Still, the U.S. is indeed a corporation.
It's a "body of people".
None of this presents a compelling argument, either way.
Your best angle would be to point out that the plain reading of text usually has no bearing on the interpretation of law. You'd then need to present case law and try to establish your point.