They did not inoculate the hamsters with Sars Cov-2. They injected a dying tissue culture into them.
The SARS-CoV-2 virus was put to use in this research and seeded in Vero E6 cells incubated in Dulbecco’s modified Eagle’s medium (Invitrogen, Carlsbad, United States) supplemented with 10% fetal bovine serum (Gibco, Grand Island, United States) and incubated at 37°C and five percent carbon dioxide.
eighteen hamsters were inoculated intranasally with SARS-CoV-2 stock virus at 10^6 50% tissue culture infectious dose [...]
This is part of the scientific fraud of virology. NOWHERE will you find a study where they inject pure viral particles. And yes, virologist do refer to the above concoction as an "isolated virus sample". It's the decaying culture and artificial compounds added to these mediums that cause the symptoms. Same thing goes for "vaccines".
Look up the definition of "inject". Nothing to do with a needle. Just device to force into the body, as would be required for intranasal inoculation.
They're injecting a medium having many different molecular compounds. Which symptoms are from the "virus"? It's just ridiculous nonsense posing as scientific method. There is no need to compare theories at all. Should we test the suspected pathogen alone or should we just mix it with a bunch of other shit and conjecture? It's pretty simple.
I agree it was misleading to use "inject" in that context.
This post is about how the inoculation of hamsters with Sars Cov 2 has the same side effects as the inoculation of humans with Sars Cov 2 even though the means of inoculation are slightly different.
As I understand it, these "vaccines" don't even contain the "virus". Or at least, the Moderna and Pfizer ones don't. They say they're using mrna to have body cells produce the viral spike protein. They're not challenging the immune system with viral particles directly like they used to.
So if they're not culturing anything, it's hard to imagine how this experiment and an mrna vaccine mediums would overlap. Even though the symptoms appear to be matching, it's possible to create the same collection of symptoms with different poisons. For example, if I test two different poisons that compromise blood cells I would expect to see tissue oxygen deprivation, degraded function, and associated lesions in both instances.
Basically, they've given poison to a hamster to create systemic damage. They then use the PCR test at 40 cycles to generate a false positive for sars-cov-2 in whatever part of the body they want to test. They can now point and say, "look at all the damage Covid caused!".
What about the vaccine symptoms then?
Do the vaccine and this experiment use the same poisons? Who knows! Manufactures are not divulging their methods.
Is that poison the sars-cov-2 particle? This experiment as designed gives us no clue one way or the other.
Therefore, the experiment cannot provide us with any information to help us speculate about vaccine damage! You should leave it up though, because discussions like these are useful.
They did not inoculate the hamsters with Sars Cov-2. They injected a dying tissue culture into them.
This is part of the scientific fraud of virology. NOWHERE will you find a study where they inject pure viral particles. And yes, virologist do refer to the above concoction as an "isolated virus sample". It's the decaying culture and artificial compounds added to these mediums that cause the symptoms. Same thing goes for "vaccines".
Look up the definition of "inject". Nothing to do with a needle. Just device to force into the body, as would be required for intranasal inoculation.
They're injecting a medium having many different molecular compounds. Which symptoms are from the "virus"? It's just ridiculous nonsense posing as scientific method. There is no need to compare theories at all. Should we test the suspected pathogen alone or should we just mix it with a bunch of other shit and conjecture? It's pretty simple.
I agree it was misleading to use "inject" in that context.
As I understand it, these "vaccines" don't even contain the "virus". Or at least, the Moderna and Pfizer ones don't. They say they're using mrna to have body cells produce the viral spike protein. They're not challenging the immune system with viral particles directly like they used to.
So if they're not culturing anything, it's hard to imagine how this experiment and an mrna vaccine mediums would overlap. Even though the symptoms appear to be matching, it's possible to create the same collection of symptoms with different poisons. For example, if I test two different poisons that compromise blood cells I would expect to see tissue oxygen deprivation, degraded function, and associated lesions in both instances.
Basically, they've given poison to a hamster to create systemic damage. They then use the PCR test at 40 cycles to generate a false positive for sars-cov-2 in whatever part of the body they want to test. They can now point and say, "look at all the damage Covid caused!".
What about the vaccine symptoms then? Do the vaccine and this experiment use the same poisons? Who knows! Manufactures are not divulging their methods. Is that poison the sars-cov-2 particle? This experiment as designed gives us no clue one way or the other.
Therefore, the experiment cannot provide us with any information to help us speculate about vaccine damage! You should leave it up though, because discussions like these are useful.
Because how do you inoculate when the substance can't be isolates.
Do you have some resource on injected infecting?
That sounds like the spike protein thing, but biologically speaking I don't understand how that could actually be contagious.