"squatting in it's granted region"
Wait, what? What region was granted with exclusivity in 1917?
But in reality I'd bet it's like any other agreement like that. England just wanted to CYA in writing. That's clear with how it was worded. But why the need to CYA with specificity like that? Did they have a hunch there would be an issue? Did they have more than a bunch?
Also, on that note, you didnt answer the conspiracy part. You claim you're seeking a conspiracy but ignore the part about US suddenly going from "meh." to "CHARGE!!" after the mandate. 1917. Would you say that US increased involvement (sacrifice) in 1917 was material in winning the war?
How long until womp womp black Friday? What happened there?
maybe the conspiracy you're seeking is the Balfour Declaration. The document which established modern day Israel as a "national home for the jewish people" (aka a new nation). And how did that document begin again?....
DEAR LORD ROTHSCHILD
and were there any additional pesky terms written into that document?
and tell me again how Woodrow Wilson went from "meh." commitment to helping out our old enemies (England) with their great war, to suddenly jumping two feet and full credit/debt into the war?
Maybe someone related to Cenk from 1908 knows?