All the verses I quoted for pisteuo are active verbs. John 14:1 and Acts 19:4 are both imperative. The only difference is plural versus singular, and Paul uses the aorist which refers to a state of being rather than an immediate action, i.e., "be believing". But it's rare that one needs tense to interpret accurately what a text says.
On my own, I looked at all the classic discrepancies alleged in the Bible, and found that 100% of them rely upon assuming one knows better rather than looking into the culture to see if the person could have had a consistent meaning. The same is true of other holy books like the Quran; if you give the source credit you can resolve every charge of contradiction. The same is not true of any major narrative franchise or cinematic universe proposed nowadays: they all have admitted irreconcilable narrative gaps that are spotted by fans; some of them are retconned by special pleading, and some just ignored. Watson told Holmes he was shot in the arm, then later he was shot in the leg, with no evidence he was shot in both places, and the fans all know that and accept it. But the tensions in long-accepted texts are accepted by fans because they do have reconciliations, not because they are judged irreconcilable; that comes from a contrary spirit. This is why I'm so open to apocrypha and pseudepigrapha: because most of the time they really are reconcilable (and on occasion, when the fans themselves did point out a true impossibility, that remains known and accepted as a reason for the text to have lesser status than others). All the 19th-century skepticism against the Bible rejected the text as culturally transmitted and stood against it to fight it; in prior eras nobody could mass together to do that.
Kabbalah means "received" and should have meant any formal teaching. I pointed out that the same word, in Greek, was used for the confession of the resurrection in the 30s, as evidenced later. It was used by proto-orthodox, by gnostics, by rabbinicals, and by Essenes for their formal creeds and symbols. Only the rabbinical strand retained it as the word "kabbalah", so nowadays it means a narrative containing ten core attributes, the withdrawal of light and the divine spark, and the return of human superpowers, very much like gnosticism with its aeons. Its only problem is if it denies the nature of God while getting sidetracked with its human advancement.
Like I said before Jesus came to teach a message of love and forgiveness and spiritual transformation. There's nothing to prove here.
If it's not proven to someone that love is the way, the message doesn't click. Love requires both the spirit and the mind; if I fail by losing focus on either, I apologize.
This takes me back to the council of Nicaea in 325 AD, where Emperor Constantine and the bishops chose which gospels would be canonized and which would be hidden or destroyed. The alternative gospels, Gospel of Thomas a collection of sayings of Jesus given secretly to the apostles, those that gave Mary Magdalene her true power, The Gospel of Philip, The Gospel of Truth, The Gospel of the Egyptians and many more were rejected, their teachings suppressed for centuries. These gospels were branded heresy. Their wisdom was forbidden. And the memory blurred until only fragments remained.
Didn't happen, fren. There's no Nicene action about the Scriptural canon. I find that Jerome mentioned that Nicea used Judith in its deliberations, but canonization happened later. There was no suppression of any document there except the writings of Arius, there was no branding any of these as heresy, there was no forbidding their reading. The Gospel of Thomas found was dated 340; its use was noted by Cyril in the 4th century and continued by Manichaeans in the 5th. The Gospel of Mary didn't circulate enough to get much notice from the church, it appears to be 2nd-century origin from its framing, and only has a couple Coptic and Greek manuscripts. The Gospel of Philip also circulated into later in the 4th century, though its origin may be 3rd-century in Syriac thought. The Gospel of Truth which we have may have been one rejected by Irenaeus, or may have been written in the 4th century, but it had enough literary merit that it circulated quite awhile and was knowably related to (but distinct from) Valentinian gnosticism. The Gospel of the Egyptians (Coptic), with five ogdoads, Sakla creating archons, is also late in Nag Hammadi but I don't see its immediate provenance (it sounds quite late with its developments).
So, trying to make the best reconciliation of your statement, what I find is: (1) Constantine did make up a list, exact contents unknown, of books to be included in 50 Bibles he ordered for printing for Constantinople; this is not likely equal to the dual canon that arose later. (2) There are no acts through the 4th century calling for destruction of old texts circulating among Christians besides those of Arius. (3) Nag Hammadi did take it on itself to protect (and lose track of) a number of the alternative books, which very few others were able to do; yet this was not active suppression or rejection. (4) There were individuals who deprecated individual books in exactly the same way any opinion was raised against any book, including some of the canonical books like Hebrews, 1-3 John, and Revelation. (5) The boundary between heresy and orthodoxy was pretty straightforward at this time, with the only blurry one being that Valentinus was condemned 200 years later (I can't prove that his works were burned) and some of the circulating works echo Valentinianism.
To paint a narrative in which a coordinated power actively suppressed and rejected apocrypha and pseudepigrapha would go against the fact that when there was active suppression and rejection we have clear marks of it. Now we could try the conspiracy theory that the powers subtly coached Christians toward accepting some and forgetting about others, without overt action, which is indeed a general trend that happens over centuries, but that potential framing doesn't agree with yours. What actually happens is that leaders either condemn books on their own initiative as voices in a continuum, or groups give formal condemnation in the cases of clearly defined heresies like that of Arius, or certain books are promoted to the neglect of other books. But for the most part Christian leaders allowed ideas to circulate so that they could be proven right or wrong, and only judged heresies after long periods of circulation. The idea that Christian emperors secretly judged writings to be detrimental to their retaining power is belied by their not taking formal action against them; I wouldn't have a problem with counting these emperors as engaging an informal war of attrition against them when noticed, but the manuscripts were too weakly supported already to be worthy of formal imperial attention.
But those fragments, those forbidden lines and half buried stories, refuse to die.
I'm all for going to all the sources, there's tremendous much in Egyptology for instance. They give alternatives of what was thought at the time. It rarely means that those at the time were all wrong and the hidden text was all correct; it usually only means that our current understanding has occasional neglected aspects. Considering all the uncovered stories we've now accessed, I don't see that much in the way of significant error. I'm pretty active about one such error, the loss of 7th-day Sabbath, but after 25 years of investigation I was finally able to reconcile church practice with the actual meaning of the 7th day, and I think such reconciliation is available for any gnostic tension.
When I say there's no evidence, it's an invitation for evidence (manuscripts and archaeology) to be produced. I greatly appreciate your producing narrative, which I judge on the likelihood of its fit to the known evidence.
Yes, Gnostics were subjected to censorship. However, it is known that efforts to destroy Gnostic texts were largely successful, resulting in the survival of very little writing by Gnostic thinkers and theologians. And yes, Gnostics were persecuted. Gnostic groups were often persecuted as a result of being declared a heresy. The response of orthodoxy to gnosticism significantly defined the evolution of Christian doctrine and church order. After gnostic and orthodox Christianity parted, Gnostic Christianity continued as a separate movement in some areas for centuries.
I don't see it. I see that Irenaeus ridiculed Valentinus, and Hippolytus condemned Naassenes, which would obviously chill some gnostic speech locally, but that is not censorship. There was no hierarchical structure and Irenaeus worked by voluntaryism and bridge-building, not authoritarianism. I don't see efforts to destroy gnostic texts. I see that gnostic teachers had a bad habit of mostly not committing to writing texts. As I said, Manichaeanism was the chief surviving aspect of gnosticism because it contained reconcilable elements instead of being a personality cult. Tertullian rehabilitated it, and then Augustine claimed what could still be retained of its usefulness. I might grant you that Theodosian I created a "parting of ways" in 381 or 382 (not under the name gnosticism but Manichaeanism), but I see nothing about suppression of the gnostic system in those edicts, only about generic (loosely enforced) deprecation of teachings against trinitarianism. There was no formal schism event for gnosticism that I see, and I try to find all the schism events!
There's no denial the persecution of Gnostics took place, for example, during the Inquisition and the Albigensian Crusade.
I didn't think we were talking about medieval times because that isn't about the Roman empire's fears but about the HRE's fears, which is quite different.
Peter the fisherman has a career described in the gospels and the two letters attributed to him. Why would I doubt his place as a unique leader among the disciples? Maybe you're trying to ask if I think him supreme as opposed to primary?
I also have no problem with greater study on the role of every Mary and other woman in the NT. It is very traditional to regard the Virgin Mary as a mirror for the divine feminine, and there's evidence this also transfers to Mary Magdalene (though some gnostics transferred it to their own love interests, which was generally regarded as a warning sign because demonstrably abused much more than used). I don't think Magdalene was silenced. The oral tradition that went into the Gospel of Mary was not strong, but now we have it and it fits with the rest. But what's overlooked is that the diatesseron gospels, whose glorification and ennoblement of women is now banally familiar to us, were cutting-edge at the time in their promotion of the feminine and contradicted the suppression of women in most other contemporary Hebrew, Greek, or Latin texts. So Mary was not silenced, but she was given a nonpareil place as first witness of the resurrection and her influence was demonstrated in hundreds of cases of Christian promotion of femininity. The fact that the Gospel of Mary is within that trend, and has a few unique aspects not found elsewhere, is not a real loss of any doctrine of femininity.
Similarly, Christians made exceeding much of the character of Sophia as depicted in their sourcetexts like Proverbs 8. They overcame Greek abstractions by presenting a real power compatible with the many prior indications in Judaism, and this overlapped with their high view of the Virgin and others. This is why they didn't neatly accept a message that Sophia ever erred, or indeed that the Virgin Mary ever did. It seems to me that every case that can be made, saying that something about females is neglected, can be answered by demonstration from orthodox tradition that it was not neglected but promoted. The primary contribution of the Gospel of Mary is the mystic experience, which is echoed in later anchorite traditions of gnosis and theoria; that experience developed from the first century but was only hinted at it in small bits and has taken centuries for any movement to get well-established views about. So I don't see much there for a story of silencing. We could certainly theorize together that certain truths were omitted or sidelined, but if they are really truths they can be tested objectively!
I looked at all the classic discrepancies alleged in the Bible, and found that 100% of them rely upon assuming one knows better rather than looking into the culture to see if the person could have had a consistent meaning. The same is true of other holy books like the Quran
Personally, I don't need to look, I would expect discrepancies and errors in the Bible. Many different writers, most likely by people who never met Jesus, the books were written over a relatively long period of time, etc. As for translations, all the Bibles, every single one out there today require translation. Every single word you've read in the Bible is a translation. And every translation is an interpretation. And many are mistranslations. Some could not have been avoided, however many were deliberate. And I don't care how hard you try to convince me of the contrary, it won't work. I studied people all my life, I know how they work and behave. And I use critical thinking and know how to connect the dots.
Also, there are many misinterpretations. The Bible is hard to understand and in most cases requires some assistance. Just ask the jews. They have a tremendous respect for learning and for literacy. That said, there are certain problems with the tradition. The first is it's contradictory. When you read the Bible, it's always contradicting itself. It's almost schizophrenic. You could say it's very hard to pick out a definite message from the Bible. And that's why the oral tradition called the Oral Torah is actually much more important. And so Jews have to go to the synagogue all the time where the rabbi will explain to them the meaning of the Bible because if you read it by yourself, it's almost impossible to understand.
All the 19th-century skepticism against the Bible rejected the text as culturally transmitted and stood against it to fight it; in prior eras nobody could mass together to do that
Personally I'm more concerned about what's being omitted, as I said in the past. Let me give you an example. Take the two back-to-back statements of the Apostles Creed namely that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Ghost born of the Virgin Mary and that he was crucified died and was buried and on the third day he rose again from the dead. It is striking to me that this oldest and most foundational Christian Creed jumps from Jesus's birth to his death and Resurrection entirely skipping over his life. How did it happen that the way Jesus came into the world and how he left Christmas and Easter came to Define Christianity itself? where did this emphasis on the entrance and exit points of Jesus's heavenly existence come from? and how did it achieve such centrality even above that of Jesus's life and teachings?
Kabbalah... containing ten core attributes, the withdrawal of light and the divine spark, and the return of human superpowers, very much like gnosticism with its aeons. Its only problem is if it denies the nature of God while getting sidetracked with its human advancement
IMO, it has more than one problem. Just the fact that Kabbalah is studied and practised by so many world leaders today is a red flag for me. Also, I can't get a straight answer to any Kabbalah question from any of the popular AI engines out there. Like I said, I'm a very strong believer in connecting the dots. You may or may not be aware Donald Trump is a self-confessed kabbalist. Quote from his 2004 book 'The Way to the Top', page 188 "..my Kabbalah teacher, Eitan Yardeni..".
If it's not proven to someone that love is the way, the message doesn't click. Love requires both the spirit and the mind;
IMO, if you have to prove to any human being that love is the way, we've lost the war for Humanity. But, I do agree with you love it's a spiritual thing. That's why an AI robot, IMO, could never feel love. AI can pretend to feel love. AI can say, "I love you.". And if you challenge it to describe how love feels, AI can provide the best verbal description in the world. AI can read countless love poems and psychology books and can then describe the feeling of love much better than any human poet, psychologist or lover. But these are just words. In the Bible the spirit of love is much more important than the letter of the law. This tension between spirit and letter existed in every religion, every legal system, even every person. Now this tension will be externalized. It will become the tension not between different humans. This will be the tension between humans and AIs, the new masters of words.
If we read the Divine Comedy, Dante's categorical imperative is very simple. Love someone. Doesn't matter who, could be your wife, it could be your mother or it could be your child. It could be your best friend. But love that person and when you love that person then all these three things are true: do not manipulate people, do not use people, treat people with respect. It means you are now going to be your best. It means you are treating this person with respect. It means that you're choosing to love this person. So love is the unifying force of the universe. That's what Dante is really saying.
Didn't happen, fren. There's no Nicene action about the Scriptural canon.
Neither you nor I were alive in 325 AD, or the 4th and 5th century. And we both have to rely on what's being documented about these times and events. For instance when it comes to the Gospel of Thomas, I could say the same thing you often say "Don't know where you're getting that". According to Wikipedia "Assigning a date to the Gospel of Thomas is very complex because it is difficult to know precisely to what a date is being assigned (then why are you saying "it was dated 340", why not 339 or 341? I'm aware some have dated the Gospel of Thomas discovered at Nag Hammadi to 340 AD, but that's just picking a number out of the air). Scholars have proposed a date as early as 60 AD or as late as 140 AD"
But, me as a critical thinking person I'm asking "Why the Gospel of Thomas isn’t in the Bible?". And I think it's a reasonable question to ask in 2026 AD. Then as you say "The Gospel of Mary didn't circulate enough to get much notice from the church", my question is "Why not?". When archaeologists finally deciphered The Gospel of Mary Magdalene in 1896 when they could finally read the entire text they understood why the Vatican demanded it never see the light of day. Why? What was in the manuscript discovered in Cairo that so terrified the most powerful church in the world? What truth had to remain hidden at any cost? Because according to this lost gospel, Mary Magdalene wasn't a repentant prostitute. That was a lie invented centuries later. She wasn't a mere follower walking behind the apostles. That was a deliberate distortion of her true role. She wasn't who the church told us she was for 2,000 years. That was an unprecedented historical manipulation. She was the guardian of a secret. A secret Jesus revealed to her and only her. A secret the other apostles knew nothing about. A secret about how the human soul can become immortal. Mary Magdalene was in many of the texts found at Nag Hammadi the embodiment of that direct unmediated divine knowledge. In the Gospel of Mary, she shares visions with the disciples that they cannot comprehend. When Peter and the others argue, caught up in jealousy and fear. It's Mary who stands as a bridge, a voice of wisdom.
I'm all for going to all the sources, there's tremendous much in Egyptology for instance
I'll have to respond to the rest of your message some other time. I can't now. But, you're raising an interesting subject Egyptology.
All the verses I quoted for pisteuo are active verbs. John 14:1 and Acts 19:4 are both imperative. The only difference is plural versus singular, and Paul uses the aorist which refers to a state of being rather than an immediate action, i.e., "be believing". But it's rare that one needs tense to interpret accurately what a text says.
On my own, I looked at all the classic discrepancies alleged in the Bible, and found that 100% of them rely upon assuming one knows better rather than looking into the culture to see if the person could have had a consistent meaning. The same is true of other holy books like the Quran; if you give the source credit you can resolve every charge of contradiction. The same is not true of any major narrative franchise or cinematic universe proposed nowadays: they all have admitted irreconcilable narrative gaps that are spotted by fans; some of them are retconned by special pleading, and some just ignored. Watson told Holmes he was shot in the arm, then later he was shot in the leg, with no evidence he was shot in both places, and the fans all know that and accept it. But the tensions in long-accepted texts are accepted by fans because they do have reconciliations, not because they are judged irreconcilable; that comes from a contrary spirit. This is why I'm so open to apocrypha and pseudepigrapha: because most of the time they really are reconcilable (and on occasion, when the fans themselves did point out a true impossibility, that remains known and accepted as a reason for the text to have lesser status than others). All the 19th-century skepticism against the Bible rejected the text as culturally transmitted and stood against it to fight it; in prior eras nobody could mass together to do that.
Kabbalah means "received" and should have meant any formal teaching. I pointed out that the same word, in Greek, was used for the confession of the resurrection in the 30s, as evidenced later. It was used by proto-orthodox, by gnostics, by rabbinicals, and by Essenes for their formal creeds and symbols. Only the rabbinical strand retained it as the word "kabbalah", so nowadays it means a narrative containing ten core attributes, the withdrawal of light and the divine spark, and the return of human superpowers, very much like gnosticism with its aeons. Its only problem is if it denies the nature of God while getting sidetracked with its human advancement.
If it's not proven to someone that love is the way, the message doesn't click. Love requires both the spirit and the mind; if I fail by losing focus on either, I apologize.
Didn't happen, fren. There's no Nicene action about the Scriptural canon. I find that Jerome mentioned that Nicea used Judith in its deliberations, but canonization happened later. There was no suppression of any document there except the writings of Arius, there was no branding any of these as heresy, there was no forbidding their reading. The Gospel of Thomas found was dated 340; its use was noted by Cyril in the 4th century and continued by Manichaeans in the 5th. The Gospel of Mary didn't circulate enough to get much notice from the church, it appears to be 2nd-century origin from its framing, and only has a couple Coptic and Greek manuscripts. The Gospel of Philip also circulated into later in the 4th century, though its origin may be 3rd-century in Syriac thought. The Gospel of Truth which we have may have been one rejected by Irenaeus, or may have been written in the 4th century, but it had enough literary merit that it circulated quite awhile and was knowably related to (but distinct from) Valentinian gnosticism. The Gospel of the Egyptians (Coptic), with five ogdoads, Sakla creating archons, is also late in Nag Hammadi but I don't see its immediate provenance (it sounds quite late with its developments).
So, trying to make the best reconciliation of your statement, what I find is: (1) Constantine did make up a list, exact contents unknown, of books to be included in 50 Bibles he ordered for printing for Constantinople; this is not likely equal to the dual canon that arose later. (2) There are no acts through the 4th century calling for destruction of old texts circulating among Christians besides those of Arius. (3) Nag Hammadi did take it on itself to protect (and lose track of) a number of the alternative books, which very few others were able to do; yet this was not active suppression or rejection. (4) There were individuals who deprecated individual books in exactly the same way any opinion was raised against any book, including some of the canonical books like Hebrews, 1-3 John, and Revelation. (5) The boundary between heresy and orthodoxy was pretty straightforward at this time, with the only blurry one being that Valentinus was condemned 200 years later (I can't prove that his works were burned) and some of the circulating works echo Valentinianism.
To paint a narrative in which a coordinated power actively suppressed and rejected apocrypha and pseudepigrapha would go against the fact that when there was active suppression and rejection we have clear marks of it. Now we could try the conspiracy theory that the powers subtly coached Christians toward accepting some and forgetting about others, without overt action, which is indeed a general trend that happens over centuries, but that potential framing doesn't agree with yours. What actually happens is that leaders either condemn books on their own initiative as voices in a continuum, or groups give formal condemnation in the cases of clearly defined heresies like that of Arius, or certain books are promoted to the neglect of other books. But for the most part Christian leaders allowed ideas to circulate so that they could be proven right or wrong, and only judged heresies after long periods of circulation. The idea that Christian emperors secretly judged writings to be detrimental to their retaining power is belied by their not taking formal action against them; I wouldn't have a problem with counting these emperors as engaging an informal war of attrition against them when noticed, but the manuscripts were too weakly supported already to be worthy of formal imperial attention.
I'm all for going to all the sources, there's tremendous much in Egyptology for instance. They give alternatives of what was thought at the time. It rarely means that those at the time were all wrong and the hidden text was all correct; it usually only means that our current understanding has occasional neglected aspects. Considering all the uncovered stories we've now accessed, I don't see that much in the way of significant error. I'm pretty active about one such error, the loss of 7th-day Sabbath, but after 25 years of investigation I was finally able to reconcile church practice with the actual meaning of the 7th day, and I think such reconciliation is available for any gnostic tension.
When I say there's no evidence, it's an invitation for evidence (manuscripts and archaeology) to be produced. I greatly appreciate your producing narrative, which I judge on the likelihood of its fit to the known evidence.
I don't see it. I see that Irenaeus ridiculed Valentinus, and Hippolytus condemned Naassenes, which would obviously chill some gnostic speech locally, but that is not censorship. There was no hierarchical structure and Irenaeus worked by voluntaryism and bridge-building, not authoritarianism. I don't see efforts to destroy gnostic texts. I see that gnostic teachers had a bad habit of mostly not committing to writing texts. As I said, Manichaeanism was the chief surviving aspect of gnosticism because it contained reconcilable elements instead of being a personality cult. Tertullian rehabilitated it, and then Augustine claimed what could still be retained of its usefulness. I might grant you that Theodosian I created a "parting of ways" in 381 or 382 (not under the name gnosticism but Manichaeanism), but I see nothing about suppression of the gnostic system in those edicts, only about generic (loosely enforced) deprecation of teachings against trinitarianism. There was no formal schism event for gnosticism that I see, and I try to find all the schism events!
I didn't think we were talking about medieval times because that isn't about the Roman empire's fears but about the HRE's fears, which is quite different.
Peter the fisherman has a career described in the gospels and the two letters attributed to him. Why would I doubt his place as a unique leader among the disciples? Maybe you're trying to ask if I think him supreme as opposed to primary?
I also have no problem with greater study on the role of every Mary and other woman in the NT. It is very traditional to regard the Virgin Mary as a mirror for the divine feminine, and there's evidence this also transfers to Mary Magdalene (though some gnostics transferred it to their own love interests, which was generally regarded as a warning sign because demonstrably abused much more than used). I don't think Magdalene was silenced. The oral tradition that went into the Gospel of Mary was not strong, but now we have it and it fits with the rest. But what's overlooked is that the diatesseron gospels, whose glorification and ennoblement of women is now banally familiar to us, were cutting-edge at the time in their promotion of the feminine and contradicted the suppression of women in most other contemporary Hebrew, Greek, or Latin texts. So Mary was not silenced, but she was given a nonpareil place as first witness of the resurrection and her influence was demonstrated in hundreds of cases of Christian promotion of femininity. The fact that the Gospel of Mary is within that trend, and has a few unique aspects not found elsewhere, is not a real loss of any doctrine of femininity.
Similarly, Christians made exceeding much of the character of Sophia as depicted in their sourcetexts like Proverbs 8. They overcame Greek abstractions by presenting a real power compatible with the many prior indications in Judaism, and this overlapped with their high view of the Virgin and others. This is why they didn't neatly accept a message that Sophia ever erred, or indeed that the Virgin Mary ever did. It seems to me that every case that can be made, saying that something about females is neglected, can be answered by demonstration from orthodox tradition that it was not neglected but promoted. The primary contribution of the Gospel of Mary is the mystic experience, which is echoed in later anchorite traditions of gnosis and theoria; that experience developed from the first century but was only hinted at it in small bits and has taken centuries for any movement to get well-established views about. So I don't see much there for a story of silencing. We could certainly theorize together that certain truths were omitted or sidelined, but if they are really truths they can be tested objectively!
Personally, I don't need to look, I would expect discrepancies and errors in the Bible. Many different writers, most likely by people who never met Jesus, the books were written over a relatively long period of time, etc. As for translations, all the Bibles, every single one out there today require translation. Every single word you've read in the Bible is a translation. And every translation is an interpretation. And many are mistranslations. Some could not have been avoided, however many were deliberate. And I don't care how hard you try to convince me of the contrary, it won't work. I studied people all my life, I know how they work and behave. And I use critical thinking and know how to connect the dots.
Also, there are many misinterpretations. The Bible is hard to understand and in most cases requires some assistance. Just ask the jews. They have a tremendous respect for learning and for literacy. That said, there are certain problems with the tradition. The first is it's contradictory. When you read the Bible, it's always contradicting itself. It's almost schizophrenic. You could say it's very hard to pick out a definite message from the Bible. And that's why the oral tradition called the Oral Torah is actually much more important. And so Jews have to go to the synagogue all the time where the rabbi will explain to them the meaning of the Bible because if you read it by yourself, it's almost impossible to understand.
Personally I'm more concerned about what's being omitted, as I said in the past. Let me give you an example. Take the two back-to-back statements of the Apostles Creed namely that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Ghost born of the Virgin Mary and that he was crucified died and was buried and on the third day he rose again from the dead. It is striking to me that this oldest and most foundational Christian Creed jumps from Jesus's birth to his death and Resurrection entirely skipping over his life. How did it happen that the way Jesus came into the world and how he left Christmas and Easter came to Define Christianity itself? where did this emphasis on the entrance and exit points of Jesus's heavenly existence come from? and how did it achieve such centrality even above that of Jesus's life and teachings?
IMO, it has more than one problem. Just the fact that Kabbalah is studied and practised by so many world leaders today is a red flag for me. Also, I can't get a straight answer to any Kabbalah question from any of the popular AI engines out there. Like I said, I'm a very strong believer in connecting the dots. You may or may not be aware Donald Trump is a self-confessed kabbalist. Quote from his 2004 book 'The Way to the Top', page 188 "..my Kabbalah teacher, Eitan Yardeni..".
IMO, if you have to prove to any human being that love is the way, we've lost the war for Humanity. But, I do agree with you love it's a spiritual thing. That's why an AI robot, IMO, could never feel love. AI can pretend to feel love. AI can say, "I love you.". And if you challenge it to describe how love feels, AI can provide the best verbal description in the world. AI can read countless love poems and psychology books and can then describe the feeling of love much better than any human poet, psychologist or lover. But these are just words. In the Bible the spirit of love is much more important than the letter of the law. This tension between spirit and letter existed in every religion, every legal system, even every person. Now this tension will be externalized. It will become the tension not between different humans. This will be the tension between humans and AIs, the new masters of words.
If we read the Divine Comedy, Dante's categorical imperative is very simple. Love someone. Doesn't matter who, could be your wife, it could be your mother or it could be your child. It could be your best friend. But love that person and when you love that person then all these three things are true: do not manipulate people, do not use people, treat people with respect. It means you are now going to be your best. It means you are treating this person with respect. It means that you're choosing to love this person. So love is the unifying force of the universe. That's what Dante is really saying.
Neither you nor I were alive in 325 AD, or the 4th and 5th century. And we both have to rely on what's being documented about these times and events. For instance when it comes to the Gospel of Thomas, I could say the same thing you often say "Don't know where you're getting that". According to Wikipedia "Assigning a date to the Gospel of Thomas is very complex because it is difficult to know precisely to what a date is being assigned (then why are you saying "it was dated 340", why not 339 or 341? I'm aware some have dated the Gospel of Thomas discovered at Nag Hammadi to 340 AD, but that's just picking a number out of the air). Scholars have proposed a date as early as 60 AD or as late as 140 AD"
And according to SacredTexts "We have two versions of the Gospel of Thomas today. The first was discovered in the late 1800's among the Oxyrhynchus Papyri, and consists of fragments of a Greek version, which has been dated to c. 200. The second is a complete version, in Coptic, from Codex II of the Nag Hammadi finds.".
But, me as a critical thinking person I'm asking "Why the Gospel of Thomas isn’t in the Bible?". And I think it's a reasonable question to ask in 2026 AD. Then as you say "The Gospel of Mary didn't circulate enough to get much notice from the church", my question is "Why not?". When archaeologists finally deciphered The Gospel of Mary Magdalene in 1896 when they could finally read the entire text they understood why the Vatican demanded it never see the light of day. Why? What was in the manuscript discovered in Cairo that so terrified the most powerful church in the world? What truth had to remain hidden at any cost? Because according to this lost gospel, Mary Magdalene wasn't a repentant prostitute. That was a lie invented centuries later. She wasn't a mere follower walking behind the apostles. That was a deliberate distortion of her true role. She wasn't who the church told us she was for 2,000 years. That was an unprecedented historical manipulation. She was the guardian of a secret. A secret Jesus revealed to her and only her. A secret the other apostles knew nothing about. A secret about how the human soul can become immortal. Mary Magdalene was in many of the texts found at Nag Hammadi the embodiment of that direct unmediated divine knowledge. In the Gospel of Mary, she shares visions with the disciples that they cannot comprehend. When Peter and the others argue, caught up in jealousy and fear. It's Mary who stands as a bridge, a voice of wisdom.
I'll have to respond to the rest of your message some other time. I can't now. But, you're raising an interesting subject Egyptology.