Do note that the screenshot in question (that you posted) says “75% of jews owned slaves,” not “75% of slaves were owned by jews.” It’s self-evident that the jewish population owned a disproportionate number of slaves out of the total, but I’ve never seen a racial citation for the total. Do you happen to have that somewhere?

I know black slaveowners, though also few in number, held many more slaves than the average per each of them, too.