Yes it does. The only problem is that they managed to observe 1) the same pathology, 2) the same particles under a microscope and 3) got the same RNA sequence of the sars, AIDS and flu viruses WITHOUT USING AN ACTUAL SAMPLE OF INFECTED TISSUE. They used yeast RNA instead, which is neutral and doesn't cause pathology. That's why I called it a falsification of the virus theory - this should not be possible if the theory was correct.
By recreating the event on an observable, smaller scale
Correct but I was asking about the methodology. As shown here (the falsification of the "isolation" of the virus): https://odysee.com/@spacebusters:c9/Final-The-End-of-Germ-Theory:8?t=5666
Only if people cared about science instead of scientism.
I’m not following. What exactly is your point? This portion of the video basically describes what I’m saying.
Yes it does. The only problem is that they managed to observe 1) the same pathology, 2) the same particles under a microscope and 3) got the same RNA sequence of the sars, AIDS and flu viruses WITHOUT USING AN ACTUAL SAMPLE OF INFECTED TISSUE. They used yeast RNA instead, which is neutral and doesn't cause pathology. That's why I called it a falsification of the virus theory - this should not be possible if the theory was correct.
Why not? What is the contradiction?