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posted 1 year ago by NumbaZero 1 year ago by NumbaZero +10 / -4
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– nfk99 0 points 1 year ago +1 / -1

this may be the case, but how can you be soooo certain. you make us all sound stupid to normies.

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– SmithW1984 2 points 1 year ago +2 / -0

There is a way to isolate/purify the supposed particle they call virus and inoculate it on a healthy subject where it should cause the same symptoms of the disease. Then they should be able to get a sample from that subject and isolate/purify the same particle. If that's done in culture that doesn't contain other genetic material and drugs, then we'll have a proof of a virus according to Koch's postulates. This all follows logically and you don't have to be a medical scientist to see that. It's never been done though. Not a single paper.

Look for yourself: https://odysee.com/@spacebusters:c9/Final-The-End-of-Germ-Theory:8?t=9269.5073

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– nfk99 1 point 1 year ago +1 / -0

i am/was a big terrain theory guy. but ive also seemed to have caught things like colds and flu. when people are 100% sure it seems forced to me. no one can really know. and it makes us seem unhinged to normies,

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– SmithW1984 1 point 1 year ago +1 / -0

That's a non-sequiter. Sounds like "I was a big believer in God, but then I saw a bunch of monkeys and realized we were just like them, only slightly evolved". You're presupposing the thing you "caught" is a transmissible disease caused by a virus. How does getting sick negate terrain theory? Does terrain theory deny the existence of flu-like diseases?

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