1 on 1 Discussion (Please all others stay out)
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My debate with Swamp Jew regarding these 5 things:
Are the Jews cursed, and enemies of God and the human race even up to the present? I say yes. Swamp Jew says no.
Is the Old Covenant still ongoing? I say no. Swamp Jew says yes.
Is OSAS true? I say no. Swamp Jew says yes.
Is the "Hebrew-roots Christian" movement actually Christian? I say no. Swamp Jew says yes.
Is the Talmud anti-Christian? I say yes. Swamp Jew says no.
By the definitions u/CrusaderPepe supplied by context, there's nothing to debate. He mischaracterizes my position by refusing to permit any other definition of the words.
By one definition ['"The Jews" are anyone of the Hebrew stock who publicly or privately REJECT Jesus Christ as their Messiah, Lord, Savior, and God. This includes all religious Jews, since the First Century (Pharisees, Rabbinical Jews, Orthodox Jews, Reformed Jews, Hasidic Jews, etc.). This includes all secular non-Christian Jews that are only ethnically Jewish. Whether they are Zionist or not doesn’t matter. It also includes converts to post-First Century Judaism.'], "the Jews" would, indeed, be cursed and enemies of God and the human race even up to the present; no other definition is in view there.
By one definition ['By "valid" I don't mean it justified them. No. It just better prepared them for Faith in Christ.'], the Old Covenant would, indeed, no longer be "valid" in the same way it was once "valid"; no other definition is in view there.
By one definition ['The term is "sanctifying grace." And this is the grace bestowed by God upon Baptism and is poured upon the soul while one has Faith and no stain of mortal sin. Mortal sin removes it. Penance/confession brings it back.'], having "sanctifying grace" once would, indeed, not be having "sanctifying grace" always; no other definition is in view there.
By one definition ['The "Hebrew-roots Christian movement" syncretizes Christianity with anti-Christ Talmudic/Rabbinical Judaism, believes the Old Covenant is still active, believes Mosaic Law is still active, practices the Sabbath, celebrates Jewish feasts, etc. and clearly meets the definition of a Judaizer sect (that being a sect that tries to enforce Old Covenant or Mosaic Laws into the New Covenant of Christ)' .... 'And even if they don't force other Christians to do so, by even influencing and advocating for these things, at all, they fall under the definition of "Judaizers".' 'When you post stuff defending the Talmud and/or Jewish interpretations of things ... you are influencing it, in a Judaizing way.'], the "Hebrew-roots Christian movement" would not be actually Christian; no other definition is in view there.
By one definition ['Blasphemy is directly opposed to the second commandment. It consists in uttering against God - inwardly or outwardly - words of hatred, reproach, or defiance; in speaking ill of God; in failing in respect toward him in one's speech; in misusing God's name.'], the Talmud contains "blasphemy"; no other definition is in view there.
If Pepe is willing to offer other definitions I can evaluate the new truth claims separately at that time.
In other words, I won't let this Jew REDEFINE words with OBJECTIVE MEANING into his SUBJECTIVE MEANING TO SUIT HIM, and he thinks this is unfair. The 5 propositions are Boolean, from a formal logical point of view: you can either find each of the 5 original propositions true or find them false. There is no MIDDLE GROUND, no CENTER, and a JEWISH HEGELIAN DIALECTIC need not apply.
Since I won't let Swamp Jew redefine objective words or turn Boolean propositions into dialectics, in order to reframe the debate in his favor, he has made it clear that he has no desire to debate in a fair, straightforward way.
Making public posts like this directed at one person makes you seem obsessive in almost a romantic or erotic way. Care to comment?
What a load of trash! Swamp Jew is a powerful moderator on this website and is a subverter, has subverted me and others, and I just want to publicly accuse him for what he is sitewide: HE IS A JEW.