The US government is just a jewish puppet show.
(media.conspiracies.win)
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If your church teaches that the modern day Jews are God's chosen, then your church teaches that God is a promise breaker and liar. The modern day Jews are not, and have never been, God's Israel people as proven by the bible, history and even Jewish writings.
Can you expand on that?
Didn’t Jesus say to the woman of Samaria that ‘you don’t know what you worship. We (Jews) know what we worship, for salvation is of the Jews’?
Didn’t Jesus instruct his disciples to stay out of the way of the goyim and to only seek out the lost children of the house of Israel?
Where in the Bible or history does the ‘modern day Jew’ (as you put it) depart from the biblical Jews that Jesus and the whole Bible deem to be the chosen children of the god of Israel?
Revelations 2:9 and 3:9 makes it pretty clear that today’s Jews aren’t the chosen people. You are confusing old covenant with new. Jesus was a Gentile, not a Jew.
I posted this in another thread a while ago:
Don’t confuse the Old Law (testament) with New Law that governs Christians today. How does God behave differently between the Laws/testaments? Does the difference in laws account for these differences? The lineages of the people you mention are fairly clear. Hebrew is probably the most muddled.
Israelites = Abrahamic lineage and covenant under the Old Testament
Jews = Lineage from Cain, Nimrod, tribe of Judah, currently Synagogue of Satan as referenced in Revelations. Imposters of the original Jews who are now gone.
Semites = Arabs, lineage of Ishmael from Abraham’s son with Hagar, the Egyptian servant. They will likely play a role in destroying/weakening the Synagouge. You can see that happening today.
Hebrews = Likely Abrahamic lineage but less clear in Bible references, likely depending on author of the book in question.
If Jesus was a Gentile and not a Jew then why, in his conversation with the Samaritan woman in John 4:1-45 does he acknowledge himself as a Jew? Why didn’t he correct the Samaritan woman when she termed him a Jew (John 4:9)?
Why did he then go on to reference himself as a Jew in John 4:22?
You say that the so-called original Jews are not gone and in their place stands an impostor.
What is your reason for believing that’s there were separate, original Jews who are now gone? And, were that so, then how do you account for Jesus stating that salvation was of the Jews? False messiah? Simply defeated? Simple error?
There’s some good commentary on John 4 (KJV). Jesus never agreed or acknowledges that he is a Jew, that’s the Samarian woman’s assumption. The conversation starts with her assuming Jesus is a thirsty Jew, then her perception and realization changes to Him being a prophet, and finally the Messiah. Jesus brought (or tried to bring) reformation to Judaism but was not a Jew himself, he was a Gentile and Israelite. Judaism is a false religion and that’s why Revelations calls out Jews as the Synagouge of Satan. When Jesus was crucified by the Romans (with heavy involvement from the Jews), they mocked Jesus as the “King of the Jews” because he was trying to Reform Judaism, not because he was a Jew.
Some commentaries you could study on this chapter (as well as the meaning of Revelations 2 and 3) are Henry’s and Spurgeon’s.