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posted ago by ZyklonShower ago by ZyklonShower +14 / -1

The gene for lactase persistence evolved in one person thousands of years ago possibly either a yamnaya or an Anatolian Neolithic farmer. That gene then was selected for because it provided an advantage (the ability to digest milk in an age without refrigeration or water purification was obviously good). Because jews are so inbred all it should have taken is one person a few hundred years ago in the Jewish community to have acquired that gene from a non Jewish ancestor and it should have spread among them all within a few hundred years. That’s how other isolated communities like the Irish and the basques and the icelandics developed lactase persistence in such high numbers. One random guy in their community is lactase persistent and within a few hundred years he’s the ancestor of everybody in that community many times and therefore that gene is in everybody lol.

Lactase persistence is also a dominant genetic trait. If you have one lactase persistan gene and one lactose intolerant gene you should be lactase persistent.

Jews however have not only repelled that gene, they are the most VIOLENTLY lactose intolerant group. You give a Chinese person or a black or an Arab a milk drink and if they’re lactose intolerant they might get stomach pains. The Jew on the other hand will become violently ill almost like they’re allergic to dairy or cream. Why? All it should have taken is one Dutch, German or Polish ancestor who was White hundreds of years ago and they should all be able to drink milk. It’s really weird.