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posted 3 years ago by ghost_of_aswartz 3 years ago by ghost_of_aswartz +37 / -0
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– DangerCat 0 points 3 years ago +1 / -1

Ghost: Tone is hard on the internet, so please take this question with all humility: Does what you say really make sense to you?

You have: (a) one virus only (or largely) transmissible through anal sex, because the lining of the anus isn't designed for roughness, so it bleeds easily, and thus allows the virus into the blood stream.

And: (b) a "variant" that somehow transmits through the vagina and the penis, despite neither being particularly susceptible to tears (particularly the penis -- they rarely bleed).

So: somehow a small mutation or "frame shift" or whatever in the DNA of the virus allowed it to completely change its method of operation? Does this really make sense?

Also: consider that AIDS diseases in Africa are basically just diarrhea, TB and things like that, that Africans tend to get because of general insalubriousness. Why would the diseases be almost completely different? People don't really die of Kaposi's Sarcoma in African AIDS; people rarely (never) die of diarrhea in American AIDS. Incidentally, the prevalence of Kaposi's Sarcoma in early AIDS patients effectively proves that AIDS is a hoax -- doctors should have known this, and many of them did... but many just wanted a quick buck.

Another thing to consider: there are now many (say, millions, not tens of millions) sub-Saharan Africans living in the USA/Europe... Do they or their children pick up HIV-2 (hint: no).

AIDS is one of the biggest crimes against humanity. Other than Covid, Smallpox, Heart Disease (etc)

DangerCat

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