So assuming the report is not misinfo:
If one hasn't genetically engineered their own cells to create the spike protein w/ mrna,
Would exposure to externally-derived spike protein produce a similar immune response as intended with the shot?
(Both could produce the different adverse immune system responses of course.)
If one has already been exposed to the 'vid, (assuming the virus really contains the s-protein), would antibodies already be present ?
So assuming the report is not misinfo:
If one hasn't genetically engineered their own cells to create the spike protein w/ mrna,
Would exposure to externally-derived spike protein produce a similar immune response as intended with the shot?
(Both could produce the different adverse immune system responses of course.)
If one has already been exposed to the 'vid, (assuming the virus really contains the s-protein), would antibodies already be present ?