We are told that we only have tides in the oceans and seas because of the moon so why do we only see the moon once a day but we have two tides?
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how do you explain how we can use math derived from newtonian physics ( the moon) predict tides with stunning absolute precsion accuracy? Why does the tide occur when there is no wind?
Not true. Ever heard of the doldrums? Having spent a great deal of time at sea, there are times when there is zero wind locally, sometimes for days on end. While there is always wind somewhere, it is way to variable to predict tides. If its the wind, why do lunar/ gravitational tide charts get it 100 percent accurate, even months/ years/ decades in advance.
Still no explaination for why newtonian physics predict tides with perfect accuracy. Why do they not use wind to predict tides? Why is moon phase exactly correlated with tide amplitude if not for newtonian physics? If you can demonstrate several examples of using wind to predict a tide time and range, many months in advance, it would help. I looked and cant find a single example. I use tide tables daily, and they are NEVER wrong, even slightly. They are not calculated based on wind and can predict years into the future. Why is that?