offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which is God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightful Semite owners of the land. Does that line up with my interpretation or yours? Do you support their behavior or do you condemn it?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which is God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightful Semite owners of the land. Does that line up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which is God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightly Semite owners of the land. Does that line up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightly Semite owners of the land. Does that line up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightly Semite owners of the land. Do they like up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what’s they’re doing to Christians in Palestine, the rightly Semite owners of the land. Do they like up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Look how “jews” are behaving and what’s they’re doing to Palestine, the rightly Semite owners of the land. Do they like up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
Oh, and one more thing, look around you and the state of affairs today. Do they like up with my interpretation or yours?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right?
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You’re drawing conclusions from supplemental writings. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right? Otherwise, Revelations 2:9 and 3:9 wouldn’t exist.
offhand verse
It’s not “offhand” if it’s in the Bible. Written by God through John, Revelations 2 and 3 are God’s message to the Christian churches. How can you say something like that but put strong emphasis on Ignatius’ non-Scripture notes?
96AD
That’s right, which is after the jews and Romans killed Christ.
The Book of Revelations is divided into a series of visions, some of which are partly or fully veiled, others are comparatively clear in their teachings. Chapters 2 and 3 (KJV) cover vision 1 which God’s message to the seven churches. Since this is after Christ has been killed, he provides a warning to Christians about jews in chapter 2 when speaking to the Church of Smyrna (Rev. 2:9) and in chapter 3 (Rev. 3:9) to the church of Philadelphia.
There is a continuous Judahite people from the first century to today
Is it accurate? And what about before that? “Jews” are first mentioned in the Bible well before the first century AD, in 2 Kings 16:6. Most “jews” in Israel today have European descent, like from the Ashkenazi lineage. How does that happen?
So I'm using the guy who watched the Scriptures be written, but you seem to be using some racist ca. 1900.
I’m using God’s Word and you’re not. You do realize the Bible is a “racist” book, right? Otherwise, Revelations 2:9 and 3:9 wouldn’t exist.