First of all the word Jew is a modern term. Prior to 1775 the word "Jew" did not exist in any language. Sheridan used it for the first time in his play "The Rivals". Another one of their attempts to steal the identity of the true Israelites.

Dude, read up on what word-concept fallacy is. I'm loosing IQ with your arguments. The word jew etymology comes from the hebrew yehudi which became ioudaios in greek. Over time the meaning shifted to denote not only the descendants of Judea (southern Israel) but all Israelites.

Jews are Edomites not Israelites. All Bible verses regarding Edom or Amalek apply to what today we call Jews.

What jews are today is a different question, this is goalpost moving. We're talking about biblical jews and they were descendants of Israel or Jacob. The Edomites are descendant from Jacob's brother, Esau.

After the Babylonian exile most jews lost their lineage (except for Christ). After the fall of the Temple in 70AD they lost their state and dispersed around Asia, Africa and Europe. In the 8th c. the turkic Khazarian khaganate converted to judaism becoming the only state in history to do so. Yes, the ashkenazi jews trace their origin to the khazars and DNA testing has proven this. Today's jews are not the biblical jews, correct, but they still claim they are. The correct term for them is false jews (as Revelation teaches us).

Same applies to the word "Christian", first time it was used was sometime in the second century CE. The first followers of Jesus didn't even call themselves Christians, but simply Followers. They just thought of themselves as belonging to "The Way" (Acts 9:2; 19:9, 23; 22:4; 24:14)

So? I fail to understand the significance of how they called themselves? Do you understand that a concept or phenomena can predate the given name for it? Christians are the followers of Christ and His Church. The Apostles were Christian. It doesn't matter what they called themselves. Did you know the name Jesus wasn't used until the 3c. and Christ was called Yeshua? So I guess Jesus didn't exist then. Is this logically sound to you?

The Israelites didn't kill Jesus. Israelites left Judea already. That's why Jesus said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the nation of Israel." - Matthew 15:24

Wrong interpretation taken out of context. You failed to mention here Jesus talks to the canaanite woman. He meant He was sent to the jews/Israelites and not to the gentile nations. He doesn't differentiate between the kingdoms of Judea and Israel - both are descendent from Jacob and are equally Isrealite.

Then who were the people living in that area when Jesus was killed? Well, they were called Judeans. A Judean is one who is a resident of Judea regardless of his religion, race, or nationality. The Judean historian Flavius Josephus describes how the Idumeans (Edomites) became known as “Judeans” through a forced conversion imposed by John Hyrcanus, who was the ruler of Judea around 130 BCE.

Herod the Great, the king of Judea at the time of Jesus’ birth who ruled the territory with Roman approval, was in fact an Idumean or Edomite (a descendant of Esau).

Bs. The majority of the population were descendants of the tribe of Judah. Jesus Himself is descended from the tribe of Judah and was born in Bethlehem which was in Judea. Minorities included Samaritans and Idumeans (~10% of the population) which makes sense because they were bordering nations.

Yes, Herod was a converted Idumean, so what? The people who attempted and successfully conspired to kill Jesus were the pharisees and sadducees (all of whom were jewish) who turned the jews of Jerusalem (again in Judea) against Christ, thus fulfilling the numerous prophesies that the messiah would be betrayed and killed by His own people.

If you truly believe this you have lost the ability to think for yourself.

You see, thinking for yourself doesn't necessarily lead you to correct conclusions. Most of the time you get deluded. People usually overestimate their ability to discern truth and fall for ridiculous gnostic bs like the article above, especially when dealing with history (or thinking everything in the past was faked).

First of all the word Jew is a modern term. Prior to 1775 the word "Jew" did not exist in any language. Sheridan used it for the first time in his play "The Rivals". Another one of their attempts to steal the identity of the true Israelites.

Dude, read up on what word-concept fallacy is. I'm loosing IQ with your arguments. The word jew etymology comes from the hebrew yehudi which became ioudaios in greek. Over time the meaning shifted to denote not only the descendants of Judea (southern Israel) but all Israelites.

Jews are Edomites not Israelites. All Bible verses regarding Edom or Amalek apply to what today we call Jews.

What jews are today is a different question, this is goalpost moving. We're talking about biblical jews and they were descendants of Israel or Jacob. The Edomites are descendant from Jacob's brother, Esau.

After the Babylonian exile most jews lost their lineage (except for Christ). After the fall of the Temple in 70AD they lost their state and dispersed around Asia, Africa and Europe. In the 8th c. the turkic Khazarian khaganate converted to judaism becoming the only state in history to do so. Yes, the ashkenazi jews trace their origin to the khazars and DNA testing has proven this. Today's jews are not the biblical jews, correct, but they still claim they are. The correct term for them is false jews (as Revelation teaches us).

Same applies to the word "Christian", first time it was used was sometime in the second century CE. The first followers of Jesus didn't even call themselves Christians, but simply Followers. They just thought of themselves as belonging to "The Way" (Acts 9:2; 19:9, 23; 22:4; 24:14)

So? I fail to understand the significance of how they called themselves? Do you understand that a concept or phenomena can predate the given name for it? Christians are the followers of Christ and His Church. The Apostles were Christian. It doesn't matter what they called themselves. Did you know the name Jesus wasn't used until the 3c. and Christ was called Yeshua? So I guess Jesus didn't exist then. Is this logically sound to you?

The Israelites didn't kill Jesus. Israelites left Judea already. That's why Jesus said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the nation of Israel." - Matthew 15:24

Wrong interpretation taken out of context. You failed to mention here Jesus talks to the canaanite woman. He meant He was sent to the jews/Israelites and not to the gentile nations. He doesn't differentiate between the kingdoms of Judea and Israel - both are descendent from Jacob and are equally Isrealite.

Then who were the people living in that area when Jesus was killed? Well, they were called Judeans. A Judean is one who is a resident of Judea regardless of his religion, race, or nationality. The Judean historian Flavius Josephus describes how the Idumeans (Edomites) became known as “Judeans” through a forced conversion imposed by John Hyrcanus, who was the ruler of Judea around 130 BCE.

Herod the Great, the king of Judea at the time of Jesus’ birth who ruled the territory with Roman approval, was in fact an Idumean or Edomite (a descendant of Esau).

Bs. The majority of the population were descendants of the tribe of Judah. Jesus Himself is descended from the tribe of Judah and was born in Bethlehem which was in Judea. Minorities included Samaritans and Idumeans (~10% of the population) which makes sense because they were bordering nations.

Yes, Herod was a converted Idumean, so what? The people who attempted and successfully conspired to kill Jesus were the pharisees and sadducees (all of whom were jewish) who turned the jews of Jerusalem (again in Judea) against Christ, thus fulfilling the numerous prophesies that the messiah would be betrayed and killed by His own people.

If you truly believe this you have lost the ability to think for yourself.

You see, thinking for yourself doesn't necessarily lead you to correct conclusions. Most of the time you get deluded. People usually overestimate their ability to discern truth.

If you truly believe this you have lost the ability to think for yourself. First of all the word Jew is a modern term. Prior to 1775 the word "Jew" did not exist in any language. Sheridan used it for the first time in his play "The Rivals". Another one of their attempts to steal the identity of the true Israelites.

Dude, read up on what word-concept fallacy is. I'm loosing IQ with your arguments. The word jew etymology comes from the hebrew yehudi which became ioudaios in greek. Over time the meaning shifted to denote not only the descendants of Judea (southern Israel) but all Israelites.

Jews are Edomites not Israelites. All Bible verses regarding Edom or Amalek apply to what today we call Jews.

What jews are today is a different question, this is goalpost moving. We're talking about biblical jews and they were descendants of Israel or Jacob. The Edomites are descendant from Jacob's brother, Esau.

After the Babylonian exile most jews lost their lineage (except for Christ). After the fall of the Temple in 70AD they lost their state and dispersed around Asia, Africa and Europe. In the 8th c. the turkic Khazarian khaganate converted to judaism becoming the only state in history to do so. Yes, the ashkenazi jews trace their origin to the khazars and DNA testing has proven this. Today's jews are not the biblical jews, correct, but they still claim they are. The correct term for them is false jews (as Revelation teaches us).

Same applies to the word "Christian", first time it was used was sometime in the second century CE. The first followers of Jesus didn't even call themselves Christians, but simply Followers. They just thought of themselves as belonging to "The Way" (Acts 9:2; 19:9, 23; 22:4; 24:14)

So? I fail to understand the significance of how they called themselves? Do you understand that a concept or phenomena can predate the given name for it? Christians are the followers of Christ and His Church. The Apostles were Christian. It doesn't matter what they called themselves. Did you know the name Jesus wasn't used until the 3c. and Christ was called Yeshua? So I guess Jesus didn't exist then. Is this logically sound to you?

The Israelites didn't kill Jesus. Israelites left Judea already. That's why Jesus said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the nation of Israel." - Matthew 15:24

Wrong interpretation taken out of context. You failed to mention here Jesus talks to the canaanite woman. He meant He was sent to the jews/Israelites and not to the gentile nations. He doesn't differentiate between the kingdoms of Judea and Israel - both are descendent from Jacob and are equally Isrealite.

Then who were the people living in that area when Jesus was killed? Well, they were called Judeans. A Judean is one who is a resident of Judea regardless of his religion, race, or nationality. The Judean historian Flavius Josephus describes how the Idumeans (Edomites) became known as “Judeans” through a forced conversion imposed by John Hyrcanus, who was the ruler of Judea around 130 BCE.

Herod the Great, the king of Judea at the time of Jesus’ birth who ruled the territory with Roman approval, was in fact an Idumean or Edomite (a descendant of Esau).

Bs. The majority of the population were descendants of the tribe of Judah. Jesus Himself is descended from the tribe of Judah and was born in Bethlehem which was in Judea. Minorities included Samaritans and Idumeans (~10% of the population) which makes sense because they were bordering nations.

Yes, Herod was a converted Idumean, so what? The people who attempted and successfully conspired to kill Jesus were the pharisees and sadducees (all of whom were jewish) who turned the jews of Jerusalem (again in Judea) against Christ, thus fulfilling the numerous prophesies that the messiah would be betrayed and killed by His own people.