These are maps of the jewish population of Europe in 1933 when Hitler took power and then in 1950 a few years after the war when most countries finally updated their census data.
In 1933, France had 225k jews. In 1950, they had 235k jews. France was conquered by Hitler early in the war and under Nazi control for almost the entire war period. Why were basically no french jews killed?
Germany lost about a half million jews, though tens of thousands were sent to what was then British Palestine before the war and tens of thousands more moved to Israel when it was founded after the war.
Poland lost nearly its entire jewish population of about 3 million. Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Austria, and Romania lost a combined total of about one and a half million jews. Italy had a negligible jewish population that saw no significant losses.
The Soviet Union lost about half a million jews. How many of those deaths were at the Nazis and how many were at the hands of the communists is not certain.
This adds up to less than 6 million jews. Note that Britain gained 150k jews during this time Hundreds of thousands more fled to the US. Almost a million moved to Israel after the war, first in anticipation of Israel's founding and then in response to it, the vast majority of them from Europe. So, even using the official numbers from a holocaust museum that exists to spread the belief that 6 million jews were directly murdered by the Nazis, the jewish death toll appears to be closer to 4-5 million rather than 6 million.
But now consider why France would have seen no jewish deaths. Consider that there were 0 death camps liberated by American troops, every so called death camp was liberated by the communists. Consider that over 1/4 of the jewish population of Germany in 1933 lived in Berlin, that east Germany had far more jews in 1933 than west Germany, and that east Germany was taken by the Soviets while west Germany was taken by the Americans and British. So basically all of our evidence for the holocaust comes from the Soviets, as most of the jews living west of the iron curtain survived the war.
Consider that the Soviet communists were themselves mass murderers who killed more people than the Nazis were accused of killing. Consider that the Soviets modified Auschwitz after the war including adding a chimney to the crematorium to make the camp look more ominous. Consider that the death toll at Auschwitz was revised from an initial estimate of 4 million down to 1.5 million to 1 million to less than 1 million, but the overall death toll remained the same through each revision. Consider that the Soviets committed the Katyn massacre, framed the Nazis, and the US government sided with the commies in helping frame the Nazis.
Then consider that there was 0 mention of homicidal gas chambers or mass extermination or of the movement of people who were supposedly exterminated in any of the Nazis' internal encrypted communications intercepted by the allies during the war, including communications between the people running the labor/"death" camps and their commanding officers about nearly every aspect of running the camps. Literally all of the evidence that the labor camps were death camps came after the war as there was no mention of it in any of the communication intercepted by the western Allies (and we intercepted most of their internal communication).
It's much easier to believe that the Soviets massively exaggerated the holocaust to make Hitler look bad and distract from their own war crimes than to believe that the Nazis committed the fourth or fifth biggest mass murder in history with 0 internal communication and did so entirely to the east of a line that wouldn't be drawn until their defeat while leaving most jews west of that line alive. It's also likely that the 6 million number, which has never changed no matter how much the details are revised, comes from the Talmudic prophecy of the jews getting their messiah after 6 million of them are killed, rather than being based in objective fact. The reason you know 6 million jews died in the holocaust but likely don't know how many gypsies, gays, or people of other races were killed in the holocaust, don't know how many were killed by the Soviets in the holodomor and the gulags, don't know how many were killed by Mao, don't know how many people died in the Armenian genocide, don't know how many Americans died in WWII, etc. is because the 6 million number is propaganda, not historical fact.
In 1933, France had 225k jews. In 1950, they had 235k jews. France was conquered by Hitler early in the war and under Nazi control for almost the entire war period. Why were basically no french jews killed?
Many Jews were killed that were living in France between 1942 and 1945. The vast majority of them weren't French. Whatever is said nowadays of Petain, fact is that he focused his efforts on saving French nationals which were jewish rather than Foreigners that were jewish.
Now, 1950 is five years after the end of the war, indeed. Shall one be surprised if many German and Eastern Europeans Jews then migrated to France?
Not to take away from the point. I don’t trust anything Steven “Flew on Epstein’s Jet, Raped the Girl From Poltergeist, and Butchered Eyes Wide Shut For the Elites After They Killed Kubrick” Spielberg says.
I don’t really have an opinion of Spielberg and I don’t care enough about whatever you’re talking about to click on that link.
The point is, no one should be citing Hollywood movies as historical evidence. I just thought it was funny that someone would still try to argue that “the elites” killed Stanley Kubrick, it’s a charmingly dumb theory.
I’ve heard this line of reasoning before but weren’t a lot of the Jews just lined up in front of pits and shot and buried
There's no evidence for any of this.
Why waste ammo? Why did they issue them their own special currency in the camps? And why did they have a swimming pool? I don't have a fucking swimming pool. Auchwitz is nicer than my fucking house.
(Sarcasm) Surely, those piles of bodies we've all seen COULDNT have been from typhus which zyklon B was used against. Not like any other countries deloused with cyanide like poland.
That still says nothing of day and night allied bombing raids which targeted supplies to the labor camps
The evidence shows they didn't burn anybody. The evidence doesn't show mass graves either. If it were a forensic investigation one would expect clearings or carbon deposits. There are none.
We've all been through 6th grade history class and seen pictures of people who are basically human skeletons. They don't include the context of typhus or 24/7 bombing raids.
Some scientists in the 90's went over multiple miles around Treblinka camp with a radar scanner thing that looks through the ground. No mass gravesites anywhere, the study obviously got buried.
I think the holocaust is a total hoax as there is literally 0 hard evidence that any of it took place. With the many Soviet genocides you can read letters and official documents that confirm there was a plan to exterminate people. There are 0 Nazi documents that I am aware of that spell out a genocide. There are plans from the 30's to ship all of the Jews to Madagascar or Palestine though. Pre war Nazi Germany had an alliance with Zionist Jews, as they had the same goal of getting the Jews a homeland, but different reasons of course. There is a coin from the period commemorating the alliance, swastika on one side and star of david on the other.
https://encyclopedia.ushmm.org/content/en/article/jewish-population-of-europe-in-1933-population-data-by-country
https://encyclopedia.ushmm.org/content/en/map/european-jewish-population-distribution-ca-1950
These are maps of the jewish population of Europe in 1933 when Hitler took power and then in 1950 a few years after the war when most countries finally updated their census data.
In 1933, France had 225k jews. In 1950, they had 235k jews. France was conquered by Hitler early in the war and under Nazi control for almost the entire war period. Why were basically no french jews killed?
Germany lost about a half million jews, though tens of thousands were sent to what was then British Palestine before the war and tens of thousands more moved to Israel when it was founded after the war.
Poland lost nearly its entire jewish population of about 3 million. Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Austria, and Romania lost a combined total of about one and a half million jews. Italy had a negligible jewish population that saw no significant losses.
The Soviet Union lost about half a million jews. How many of those deaths were at the Nazis and how many were at the hands of the communists is not certain.
This adds up to less than 6 million jews. Note that Britain gained 150k jews during this time Hundreds of thousands more fled to the US. Almost a million moved to Israel after the war, first in anticipation of Israel's founding and then in response to it, the vast majority of them from Europe. So, even using the official numbers from a holocaust museum that exists to spread the belief that 6 million jews were directly murdered by the Nazis, the jewish death toll appears to be closer to 4-5 million rather than 6 million.
But now consider why France would have seen no jewish deaths. Consider that there were 0 death camps liberated by American troops, every so called death camp was liberated by the communists. Consider that over 1/4 of the jewish population of Germany in 1933 lived in Berlin, that east Germany had far more jews in 1933 than west Germany, and that east Germany was taken by the Soviets while west Germany was taken by the Americans and British. So basically all of our evidence for the holocaust comes from the Soviets, as most of the jews living west of the iron curtain survived the war.
Consider that the Soviet communists were themselves mass murderers who killed more people than the Nazis were accused of killing. Consider that the Soviets modified Auschwitz after the war including adding a chimney to the crematorium to make the camp look more ominous. Consider that the death toll at Auschwitz was revised from an initial estimate of 4 million down to 1.5 million to 1 million to less than 1 million, but the overall death toll remained the same through each revision. Consider that the Soviets committed the Katyn massacre, framed the Nazis, and the US government sided with the commies in helping frame the Nazis.
Then consider that there was 0 mention of homicidal gas chambers or mass extermination or of the movement of people who were supposedly exterminated in any of the Nazis' internal encrypted communications intercepted by the allies during the war, including communications between the people running the labor/"death" camps and their commanding officers about nearly every aspect of running the camps. Literally all of the evidence that the labor camps were death camps came after the war as there was no mention of it in any of the communication intercepted by the western Allies (and we intercepted most of their internal communication).
It's much easier to believe that the Soviets massively exaggerated the holocaust to make Hitler look bad and distract from their own war crimes than to believe that the Nazis committed the fourth or fifth biggest mass murder in history with 0 internal communication and did so entirely to the east of a line that wouldn't be drawn until their defeat while leaving most jews west of that line alive. It's also likely that the 6 million number, which has never changed no matter how much the details are revised, comes from the Talmudic prophecy of the jews getting their messiah after 6 million of them are killed, rather than being based in objective fact. The reason you know 6 million jews died in the holocaust but likely don't know how many gypsies, gays, or people of other races were killed in the holocaust, don't know how many were killed by the Soviets in the holodomor and the gulags, don't know how many were killed by Mao, don't know how many people died in the Armenian genocide, don't know how many Americans died in WWII, etc. is because the 6 million number is propaganda, not historical fact.
Many Jews were killed that were living in France between 1942 and 1945. The vast majority of them weren't French. Whatever is said nowadays of Petain, fact is that he focused his efforts on saving French nationals which were jewish rather than Foreigners that were jewish.
Now, 1950 is five years after the end of the war, indeed. Shall one be surprised if many German and Eastern Europeans Jews then migrated to France?
it never happened like they say this goes for all historical events. Winner writes the history
https://www.bitchute.com/video/2gmRsc1UalTT/
https://www.bitchute.com/video/TMQ1cEudc2Yg/
We don't need to resort to statistics.
Not to take away from the point. I don’t trust anything Steven “Flew on Epstein’s Jet, Raped the Girl From Poltergeist, and Butchered Eyes Wide Shut For the Elites After They Killed Kubrick” Spielberg says.
You're an idiot.
Was that English?
Try again, idiot. This time with full sentences. I believe in you.
This is the guy, everyone. Look at him and laugh.
You think that “the elites” killed Kubrick, lol.
Interesting how you skip the claims about spielberg to argue semantics
What are your thoughts on spiegelberg’s debunked documentary?
https://www.bitchute.com/video/rqoIFOTUxkYY/
I don’t really have an opinion of Spielberg and I don’t care enough about whatever you’re talking about to click on that link.
The point is, no one should be citing Hollywood movies as historical evidence. I just thought it was funny that someone would still try to argue that “the elites” killed Stanley Kubrick, it’s a charmingly dumb theory.
Classic, go eat diamonds, shit them out, and eat them again 40-50 times like the real victims had to
There's no evidence for any of this.
Why waste ammo? Why did they issue them their own special currency in the camps? And why did they have a swimming pool? I don't have a fucking swimming pool. Auchwitz is nicer than my fucking house.
https://www.bitchute.com/video/TMQ1cEudc2Yg/
(Sarcasm) Surely, those piles of bodies we've all seen COULDNT have been from typhus which zyklon B was used against. Not like any other countries deloused with cyanide like poland.
That still says nothing of day and night allied bombing raids which targeted supplies to the labor camps
Ground penetrating radar picks up mass graves. Except when they don’t exist.
The evidence shows they didn't burn anybody. The evidence doesn't show mass graves either. If it were a forensic investigation one would expect clearings or carbon deposits. There are none.
We've all been through 6th grade history class and seen pictures of people who are basically human skeletons. They don't include the context of typhus or 24/7 bombing raids.
https://holocausthandbooks.com/index.php?page_id=6
And they don't tell you they e had the same propaganda for about 180 years now.
Some scientists in the 90's went over multiple miles around Treblinka camp with a radar scanner thing that looks through the ground. No mass gravesites anywhere, the study obviously got buried.
I think the holocaust is a total hoax as there is literally 0 hard evidence that any of it took place. With the many Soviet genocides you can read letters and official documents that confirm there was a plan to exterminate people. There are 0 Nazi documents that I am aware of that spell out a genocide. There are plans from the 30's to ship all of the Jews to Madagascar or Palestine though. Pre war Nazi Germany had an alliance with Zionist Jews, as they had the same goal of getting the Jews a homeland, but different reasons of course. There is a coin from the period commemorating the alliance, swastika on one side and star of david on the other.