I've asked the question on Special Relativity's time dilation and the answers seem to conflict with this relativist's video I presented. https://www.reddit.com/r/AskPhysics/comments/18rg12h/how_does_general_relativity_fix_special_relativity/

For satellites in orbit the two frames are not symmetric. The satellites are going in circles, which means their local reference frame is accelerating.

This video explicitly stated that gravity provides no acceleration. So now when it suits the relativists there IS an acceleration on an object in orbit, unlike what is stated in the video.

But, even if we accept that acceleration magically "breaks" the symmetry there is no explanation for how. The Lorentz transform doesn't deal in acceleration, it deals in velocity, so what precept states that as soon as a frame is moving rotationally wrt another that the effects become one sided?

I've asked the question on Special Relativity's time dilation and the answers seem to conflict with this relativist's video I presented. https://www.reddit.com/r/AskPhysics/comments/18rg12h/how_does_general_relativity_fix_special_relativity/

For satellites in orbit the two frames are not symmetric. The satellites are going in circles, which means their local reference frame is accelerating.

This video explicitly stated that gravity provides no acceleration. So now when it suits the relativists there IS an acceleration on an object in orbit, unlike what is stated in the video.

But, even if we accept that acceleration magically "breaks" the symmetry there is no explanation for how. Moreover the Earth rest frame is also said to be accelerating around the sun if we accept this excuse. However the Lorentz transform doesn't deal in acceleration, it deals in velocity, so what precept states that as soon as a frame is moving rotationally wrt another that the effects become one sided?