Not sure if a judge would accept that some ballots having barcodes in a different place is evidence of fraud, given that different counties need different things on their ballots. There's also absolutely no supporting evidence in the article for the claim that the barcode would cause the machine to reject the votes, let alone the claim that that would result in fraud.
Given that the evidence for fraud is overwhelming, why are we relying on vague articles like this that take a perfectly normal situation, like different counties having slightly different ballots, and extrapolating that fraud occurred? Don't we actually have some direct evidence of fraud?
If you listen to his explanation at the senate hearing, a judge with integrity would see this as evidence (not proof) and allow for discovery. This is evidence, evidence leads to discovery, discovery leads to proof, proof leads to indictment, indictment leads jury, jury leads to veredict, veredict leads to punishment, punishment leads to treason, treason leads to execution, execution leads to dead commies and globalists, dead commie globalists leads to a prosperous world.
Why would it be evidence of fraud? It's not unusual for ballots to differ between counties.
I thought we had overwhelming evidence of fraud already, so presumably we wouldn't need discovery, because we've already got the evidence, but you seem to be saying we need discovery to find the evidence? I'm not following?
Why doesn't Trump just file the overwhelming evidence we have already? I searched through the cases filed by Trump and he hasn't even filed any evidence of fraud nor has he alleged any in court? Something doesn't seem to be adding up here. Why is Trump claiming on Twitter that the evidence is enough to say he won by a lot, and that the courts are refusing to hear the evidence, yet he's not filed any of the evidence in court?
Not sure if a judge would accept that some ballots having barcodes in a different place is evidence of fraud, given that different counties need different things on their ballots. There's also absolutely no supporting evidence in the article for the claim that the barcode would cause the machine to reject the votes, let alone the claim that that would result in fraud.
Given that the evidence for fraud is overwhelming, why are we relying on vague articles like this that take a perfectly normal situation, like different counties having slightly different ballots, and extrapolating that fraud occurred? Don't we actually have some direct evidence of fraud?
If you listen to his explanation at the senate hearing, a judge with integrity would see this as evidence (not proof) and allow for discovery. This is evidence, evidence leads to discovery, discovery leads to proof, proof leads to indictment, indictment leads jury, jury leads to veredict, veredict leads to punishment, punishment leads to treason, treason leads to execution, execution leads to dead commies and globalists, dead commie globalists leads to a prosperous world.
Why would it be evidence of fraud? It's not unusual for ballots to differ between counties.
I thought we had overwhelming evidence of fraud already, so presumably we wouldn't need discovery, because we've already got the evidence, but you seem to be saying we need discovery to find the evidence? I'm not following?
Why doesn't Trump just file the overwhelming evidence we have already? I searched through the cases filed by Trump and he hasn't even filed any evidence of fraud nor has he alleged any in court? Something doesn't seem to be adding up here. Why is Trump claiming on Twitter that the evidence is enough to say he won by a lot, and that the courts are refusing to hear the evidence, yet he's not filed any of the evidence in court?
Debunking what? That Trump hasn't filed any evidence of fraud nor has he alleged any fraud in court?